In 2000 I wrote to a mainstream publisher explaining why a translation of an ancient text that they had then had in print for 15 years was unscholarly and misleading. They ignored my advice, and reprinted the translation five years later unaltered. It has since been used by dozens of scholars in other fields as their source of information about this particular text. Could I have a case against them? I have incontrovertible supporting evidence for my criticisms. Many thanks for your help!
Alasdair Taylor's Answer
I don’t see an obvious cause of action. This is the kind of dispute that should probably be settled by scholarly rather than legal means.
